GPAT Online Mock Test 2014

GPAT Online Mock Test 2014 - All students who's looking for GPAT 2014 can take online mock test and analyse yourself for Examination to be held on 25-02-2014 to 27-02-2014.

The GPAT-2014 will be conducted online in 57 cities from 25th Feb to 27th Feb, 2014 and scores awarded will be used for admission in the post graduate pharmacy programs at national level for year 2014-15.

GPAT-2014 is a multiple choice test of 3 hours duration with 125 questions. For each correct answer 4 marks are awarded and for each wrong answer 1 mark shall be deducted.

The respective Secretaries of the state dealing with technical education have been requested to inform all concern in their respective States & jurisdiction to notify the change in the pattern of the exam for academic year 2014-15. The State Governments are required to register online free of charge for accessing detailed merit list and scores of qualified students for academic year 2014-15.

Question 1
Which of the following respective Phase-I and Phase-II reactions are the most common drug biotransformation reactions?
A
Oxidation and Glucuronidation
B
Reduction and Acetylation
C
Hydrolysis and Glucuronidation
D
Oxidation and Glutathion conjugation
Question 2
Which one of the following drugs has positive inotropic and negative chronotropic action?
A
Dopamine
B
Epinephrine
C
Digoxin
D
Isoprenaline
Question 3
Which one of the following therapeutic classes has been proved clinically as a first line therapy for heart failure and has shown decreased hospitalization, improved symptoms and delayed disease progression?
A
Cardiac glycosides
B
ACE Inhibitors (ACEIs)
C
Renin Antagonists
D
Nitrites
Question 4
Which one of the following glucose transporters is the new drug target for the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus?
A
Sodium glucose linked transporter-2 (SGLT2)
B
Glucose transporter-1 (GLUTl)
C
Sodium glucose linked transporter-1 (SGLTl)
D
Glucose transporter-2 (GLUT2)
Question 5
Which one of the following modes of HIV transmission carries highest relative risk of infection with single exposure?
A
Transfusion of blood and blood products
B
Perinatal - from mother to child
C
Sexual contacts with infected partners
D
Syringe sharing with drug addicts
Question 6
Which of the followings are the critical neurotransmitters playing major role in depression?
A
Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine and Dopamine
B
Dopamine, Norepinephrine and Serotonin
C
Serotonin, Dopamine and y-Amino butyric acid
D
Acetylcholine, Serotonin and y-Amino butyric acid
Question 7

A 55 years old man is under DOTS treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis for the last four months.

Now, he has developed symptoms of peripheral neuritis. Which one of the followings is the right addition to his therapy to manage peripheral neuritis?

A
Cyanocobalamin
B
α-Lipoic acid
C
Pyridoxine
D
Prednisolone
Question 8
What is the primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics?
A
Activation of ligand-gated potassium channels
B
Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels
C
Stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium channels
D
Blockade of GABA-gated chloride channels
Question 9
Which one of the following anti-asthmatic drugs can cause convulsions and arrhythmia?
A
Prednisolone
B
Salmeterol
C
Zafirlukast
D
Theophylline
Question 10
Which one of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs acts by inhibiting potassium, sodium and calcium channels?
A
Quinidine
B
Lignocaine
C
Amiodarone
D
Flecainide
Question 11
48 years old woman is having the symptoms of weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, bradycardia, puffy face, lethargy and dry skin. These symptoms are suggestive of which of the followings?
A
Over use of corticosteroid
B
Hypothyroidism
C
Estrogen deficiency
D
Over use of thyroxin sodium
Question 12

Increased risk of hypoglycemia and weight gain is the common side effect of drugs used in the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus. Followings are some commonly used drugs, alone or in combination, for the management of Type-2 diabetes mellitus:

[P] : Metformin [Q]: Pioglitazone

[R]: Glipizide [S] : Sitagliptin Choose the correct combination which is weight neutral and without risk of hypoglycemia.

A
P and Q
B
Q and R
C
R and S
D
P and S
Question 13
Which one of the following receptors is NOT a ligand-gated ion channel receptor?
A
Nicotinic Receptor
B
5HT3 - Receptor
C
GABAA - Receptor
D
H2 – Receptor
Question 14
Which one of the following classes of drugs causes side effects like dryness of mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, blurring of vision, precipitation of glaucoma, drowsiness and impairment of cognition?
A
Anti-adrenergic
B
Anti-cholinergic
C
An ti-serotonergic
D
Anti-dopaminergic
Question 15
Which of the following cytokines are the most important regulators in inflammation and are the targets for anti-inflammatory agents used in rheumatoid arthritis?
A
Tumor necrosis factor-a and Interleukin-1
B
Acetylcholine esterase and Eicosanoids
C
Leukotrienes and Isoprostanes
D
Adhesion factor and Monoamine oxidase A
Question 16
Which one of the followings is a FALSE statement for competitive antagonists?
A
They have an affinity for the agonist binding site on receptor
B
They have no intrinsic activity
C
They cause parallel rightward shift of the control dose response curve
D
Maximum response of the agonist cannot be achieved in their presence by increasing the
concentration of the agonist.
Question 17
Atypical antipsychotics differ from the typical antipsychotics in various ways that define them as atypical. Which one of the followings is NOT a defining property of the atypical antipsychotics?
A
Sustained hyperprolactinemia
B
Improved efficacy in treating the negative symptoms
C
Lower risk for extrapyramidal side effects (EPSs)
D
Greater serotonin receptor blockade than dopamine blockade
Question 18
Which one of the following drugs produces significant relaxation of both venules and arterioles?
A
Hydralazine
B
Minoxidil
C
Diazoxide
D
Sodium nitroprusside
Question 19

Antiviral action of purine analogues is primarily related to the followings:

[P] : Inhibition of RNA synthesis [Q] : Inhibition of DNA polymerase

[R] : Immunomodulation [S] : Inhibition of viral penetration Choose the correct option:

A
R is correct and Q is incorrect
B
Q is correct and S is incorrect
C
P is correct and R is incorrect
D
S is correct and P is incorrect
Question 20

All of the given four drugs are sympathomimetics:

[P] : Adrenaline [Q]: Isoprenaline

[R] : Phenylephrine [S] : Noradrenaline

Choose the correct statement related to their effects on blood pressure.

A
P and Q increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
B
Q and R increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
C
R and S increase systolic blood pressure
D
P and S increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure
Question 21

All of the given four drugs are neuromuscular blocking agents.

[P] : Gallamine [Q]: Succinylcholine

[R] : Vecuronium [S] : d-Tubocurarine Choose the correct statement about them.

A
P and Q are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
B
Q and R are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
C
R and S are non-competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
D
P and S are competitive neuromuscular blocking agents
Question 22
Which one of the followings is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor indicated for a variety of malignancies?
A
Imatinib
B
Paclitaxel
C
Ezetimibe
D
Mitomycin
Question 23
Which one of the followings is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy when detected in urine?
A
Estrogens
B
Progesterone
C
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
D
Corticotropic Hormone
Question 24

Followings are some opioid analgesics:

[P] : Morphine [Q]: Pethidine

[R] : Pentazocine [S] : Fentanyl Choose the correct order of respiratory depressant propensity of these agents.

A
P>Q>R>S
B
Q>P>R>S
C
R>P>Q>S
D
S>P>Q>R
Question 25

Corticosteroids are administered to treat some of the given disease states:

[P] : Peptic ulcer [Q] : Bronchial asthma

[R] : Nephrotic syndrome [S] : Myasthenia gravis Choose the correct statement about the use of corticosteroids for the treatment of these diseases.

A
P, Q and S are treated while R is NOT
B
P, R and S are treated while Q is NOT
C
Q, R and S are treated while P is NOT
D
P, Q and R are treated while S is NOT
Question 1

Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer: [P] Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.

[Q] IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.

A
P is correct and Q is incorrect
B
P is incorrect and Q is correct
C
Both P and Q are correct
D
Both P and Q are incorrect
Question 2

Non-linear pharmacokinetics can be expected due to

[P] Enzyme induction [Q] Active secretion Choose the correct answer.

A
) Both P and Q are true
B
P is true, Q is false
C
Q is true, P is false
D
Both P and Q are false
Question 3
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A
Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media
B
The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi
C
Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media
D
The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi
Question 4
Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?
A
Subcuteneous
B
Intravenous
C
Intraspinal
D
Intradural
Question 5
Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?
A
Bacillus stearothermophilus
B
Pseudomonas diminuta
C
Bacillus subtilis
D
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 6
Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidal action?
A
253.7 nm
B
275.5 nm
C
283.5 nm
D
240.0 nm
Question 7
Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?
A
Resonance forces
B
Resonance and London dispersion forces
C
Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces
D
Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions
Question 8

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the fallowing statements:

[P] Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol farms gel more readily when sheared gently. [Q] In a rheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form.

[R] Rheopexy is a phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.

A
T [R] is true but [P] and [Q] are false
B
[P] is true but [Q] and [R] are false
C
[P],
[Q] and [R], all are false
D
[P], [Q] and [R], all are true
Question 9
Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals are characterized by which one of the followings?
A
Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis
B
Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis
C
Mobility in two directions and no rotation
D
Mobility in three directions and no rotation
Question 10

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:

Assertion [a] : For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.

Reason [r] : Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles.

A
[a] is true but [r] is false
B
Both [a] and [r] are false
C
Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
D
Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]
Question 11
Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.
A
The process of collecting plasma and returning the red blood cells concentrate to the donor
B
The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor
C
The process of separating white blood cells from blood
D
The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders
Question 12
Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate in packaging materials?
A
Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC
B
Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC > Paper
C
Aluminium foil > PVdC > PVC > Paper
D
Paper > PVC > PVdC > Aluminium foil
Question 13

What will be the dose required to maintain therapeutic concentration of 20

microgram/ml for 24 hr of a drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?

A
96 mg
B
480 mg
C
960 mg
D
48 mg
Question 14
The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the followings?
A
Inertial forces to gravitational forces
B
Inertial forces' to viscous forces
C
Viscous forces to inertial forces
D
Viscous forces to gravitational forces
Question 15
What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?
A
To increase turbulence
B
To decrease turbulence
C
To prevent corrosion
D
To increase shell side passes
Question 16
Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?
A
They are also called amphiphiles
B
They contain aggregated molecules
C
They show partial solvation
D
They are also called micelles
Question 17
What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant of 4.6/hr to be degraded from initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?
A
2hr
B
4hr
C
9 hr
D
0.5 hr
Question 18
What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [urine (pH = 5) plasma (pH = 7)]
A
1 : 101
B
1 : 201
C
2 : 101
D
1 : 202
Question 19
If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is which one of the followings?
A
Saturated liquid
B
Saturated vapor
C
Superheated liquid
D
Superheated
vapor
Question 20
S.O.S means which one of the followings?
A
Take occasionally
B
Take immediately
C
Take when necessary
D
Take as
directed
Question 21
Which of the followings is NOT a reciprocating pump?
A
Plunger pump
B
Diaphragm pump
C
Gear pump
D
Piston pump
Question 22

Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 volumes) is used topically as a mild antiseptic. It is mainly used for cleaning of wounds which csold be due to some of the following actions of hydrogen peroxide.

[P] Astringent action [Q] Nascent hydrogen releasing action

[R] Oxidizing action [S] Mechanical cleansing action Choose the correct statements- for the use of hydrogen peroxide as cleaning agent for wounds?

A
P&R
B
P&Q
C
R&Q
D
R & S
Question 23
Boric acid is a weak acid (pKa 9.19) which cannot be titrated with a standard solution of sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein as indicator. This titration becomes possible on addition of glycerol due to one of the following reactions. Choose the correct reaction?
A
Boric acid becomes boronic acid on reaction with glycerol
B
Boric acid gives a monoprotic tetravalent boron ester with glycerol
C
Boric acid gives a tribasic acid on reaction with glycerol
D
Two boric acid molecules combine to give an anhydride in presence of glycerol
Question 24
A tooth paste contains stannous fluoride and calcium pyrophosphate along with other formulation constituents. Choose the correct statement out of the followings?
A
Stannous fluoride is an anticaries agent while calcium pyrophosphate is a dentifrice
B
Stannous fluoride is a dentifrice while calcium pyrophosphate is a desensitizing agent
C
Stannous fluoride is a desensitizing agent while calcium pyrophosphate is an anticaries agent
D
Both are dentifrices while calcium pyrophosphate is additionally a desensitizing agent
Question 25

Magnesium trisilicate is considered to be a better antacid than aluminium hydroxide due to its following additional properties:

[P] It has a fixed chemical composition

[Q] It forms colloidal silicone dioxide

[R] Magnesium ions overcome constipation

[S] Magnesium ions cause higher inhibition of pepsin than aluminium ions Choose the correct combination of statements?

A
Q&S
B
R&S
C
P&Q
D
Q&R
Question 1

Which of the following statements are true for ginseng root?

[P] It is among the most traded plant material of Brazil. [Q] It is obtained from Panax ginseng and Panax quinquefolium. [R] It is obtained from young plants of six months to one year age. [S] It contains derivatives of protopanaxadiol.

A
P&Q
B
R&S
C
Q&R
D
Q & S
Question 2
Which of the following alkaloids is derived from tyrosine?
A
Quinine
B
Morphine
C
Atropine
D
Ephedrine
Question 3
Anomocytic stomata, trichomes with collapsed cell and absence of calcium oxalate crystals are some of the microscopic features of which plant?
A
Digitalis
B
Hyoscyamus
C
Mentha
D
Senna
Question 4

A glycoalkaloid,

[P] contains sulphur in addition to nitrogen in its molecule.

[Q] is glycosidic in nature.

[R] can be hydrolysed to an alkaloid.

[S] always contains endocyclic nitrogen in its molecule.Choose the correct option.

A
P&R
B
Q&S
C
Q&R
D
P&Q
Question 5
Which of the following drugs is a triterpenoid containing root?
A
Valerian
B
Brahmi
C
Satavari
D
Adusa
Question 6
The following options carry the name of the plant, part used and its family. Find a WRONG combination.
A
Aegle marmelos, fruit & Rutaceae
B
Conium maculatum, fruit & Umbelliferae
C
Glycyrrhiza glabra, root and stolon & Leguminosae
D
Strophanthus gratus, seed & Scrophulariaceae
Question 7
Each of the following options lists the name of the drug, its class, pharmacological action and plant source. Choose an option showing a WRONG combination.
A
Asafoetida, oleo-gum-resin, anti-flatulence, Ferula foetida
B
Benzoin, balsam, antiseptic, Styrax benzoin
C
Myrrh, gum-resin, antiseptic, Commiphora wightii
D
Papaine, enzyme, proteolytic, Carica papaya
Question 8

Determine the correctness or otherwise mt the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:

Assertion (a) : Tannins are polyphenohc substances occurring in plant cell sap.Hydrolysable and condensed tannins are differentiated by match stick test.

Reason (r) : The condensed tannin- are resistant to acid hydrolysis, therefore stain the lignin present in match stick.

A
Both (a) and (r) are true, and r . - reason for (a)
B
Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r is NOT :he correct reason for (a)
C
(a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
D
Both (a) and (r) are false
Question 9

In acetate mevalonate pathway geranyl pyrophosphate leads to formation of

monoterpenes, the major constituents of volatile oils.

[P] Geranyl pyrophosphate contains two isoprene units

[Q] Monoterpenes have 15 carbon atoms

[R] The two isoprene units condense in head to tail fashion to give monoterpenes

[S] Isoprene unit has molecular formula of C5 H8.Which one of the given statements is correct?

A
P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is false
B
P is false, Q is true, R is true, S is false
C
P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true
D
P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is true
Question 10
Which of the following drugs does NOT induce mydriasis?
A
Atropine
B
Ephedrine
C
Phentolamine
D
Cocaine
Question 11
Which of the following beta blockers has been shown clinically to reduce mortality in patients of symptomatic heart failure?
A
Atenolol
B
Carvedilol
C
Propranolol
D
Esmolol
Question 12
Rhabdomyolysis is the side effect associated with which of the following classes of drugs?
A
ACE inhibitors
B
Statins
C
Calcium channel blockers
D
Sodium channel blockers
Question 13
Patients taking isosorbide mononitrate or nitroglycerine should be advised not to take sildenafil. This drug-drug interaction causes which of the following actions?
A
Respiratory failure
B
Severe hypotension
C
Prolongation of QT interval
D
Myocardial ischemia
Question 14
Which of the following statements is TRUE for angiotensin-II?
A
Causes myocyte hypertrophy
B
Decreases the action of sympathetic nervous system
C
Increases force of myocardial contraction
D
Decreases the synthesis and release of aldosterone
Question 15

All of the given four drugs cause vasodilatation. Choose the correct statement about them.

[P] Bradykinin [Q] Minoxidil [R] Acetylcholine [S] Hydralazine

A
P & Q cause release of nitric oxide
B
Q & R do not cause release of nitric oxide
C
R & S cause release of nitric oxide
D
P & S do not cause release of nitric oxide
Question 16
Blood level monitoring of HbAlc is important in which of the given diseased states?
A
Hypercholesterolemia
B
Diabetes mellitus
C
Myocardial infarction
D
Congestive heart failure
Question 17

Which of the fallowings is the most effective monotherapy for raising HDL

cholesterol?

A
Statins
B
Niacin
C
Ezetimibe
D
w-3-Fatty acids
Question 18
Which of the following pairs has high binding affinity for Sa-reductase?
A
Letrozole and androstenedione
B
Finasteride and testolactone
C
Finasteride and 5-DHT
D
Finasteride and testosterone
Question 19
Which is the molecular target for the vinca alkaloids as anticancer agents?
A
Tyrosine kinase
B
DNA
C
Ribosomes
D
Tubulin
Question 20
A 64 year old woman with a history of Type II diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the followings would be a POOR choice in controlling her diabetes?
A
Metformin
B
Pioglitazone
C
Glipizide
D
Exenatide
Question 21
Which of the following parameters from plasma concentration time profile study gives indication of the rate of drug absorption?
A
Cmax
B
Tmax
C
AUC
D
tl/2
Question 22
Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants acts directly on the contractile mechanism of the muscle fibers?
A
Pancuronium
B
Baclofen
C
Dantrolene
D
Chlorzoxazone

td>Question 23

Choose the correct pair of the neurodegenerative disorders from those given below.
A
Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease
B
Schizophrenia and Mania
C
Alzheimer's disease and Schizophrenia
D
Parkinson's disease and Autism
Question 24

Mifepristone and gemeprost combination is used for medical termination of

pregnancy. The action is caused due to which of the following mechanisms?

A
Mifepristone is an antiestrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.
B
Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.
C
Mifepristone is an antiandrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor agonist.
D
Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E receptor antagonist.
Question 25
Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this phenomenon known as? -
A
Oozing
B
Syneresis
C
Shrinking
D
Desolvation
Question 1

Statement [P] : Soft gelatin capsules contain 12-15 % moisture.

Statement [QJ : Hard gelatin capsule shells contain 6-10 % moisture.

Choose the correct statement?

A
Both of the above statements P & Q are true
B
Both of the above statements P & Q are false
C
Statement P is true and Q is false
D
Statement P is false and Q is true
Question 2
A drug whose solubility is 1 g/L in water, when given orally at a doseof 500 mg is absorbed upto 95% of the administered dose. The drug belongs to which class according to the BCS classification?
A
Class I
B
Class II
C
Class III
D
Class IV
Question 3
The area of clear opening of any two successive sieves according to Tyler standard is in the ratio of,
A
1 : 4
B
1 : 6
C
1: _2
D
1: _3
Question 4
Iodine-131 as sodium iodide solution is used as a radiopharmaceutical for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Its usage is dependent on the release of the following emissions:[P] Alpha particles [Q] Positrons [R] Beta emission [S] Gamma radiationChoose the correct combination of statements?
A
R&S
B
Q&S
C
P&R
D
P&S
Question 5
Alkenes show typical electrophilic addition reactions. If an electronwithdrawing group is attached to one of the carbons bearing the double bond, what will happen to the mechanism of the addition reaction?
A
It remains electrophilic
B
It becomes free radical addition
C
It becomes pericyclic reaction
D
It becomes nucleophilic
Question 6
Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds show a much higher rate of electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions than the six-membered ones. This is due to which one of the following reasons?
A
Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have higher circulating electrondensity in the ring than the six-membered ones
B
Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have lower circulating electron density in the ring than the six-membered ones
C
Five-membered rings are smaller in size than the six membered ones which affects their reaction rates
D
Six membered heteroaromatic rings are flat while the five-membered ones are puckered
Question 7

Arrange the following Lowry-Bronsted acids into their decreasing order of acidity (highest to lowest)?

[P] C2H5OH [Q] H3C-CsCH [R] H20 [S] CH3NH2

A
R>P>Q>S
B
P>R>Q>S
C
P>Q>R>S
D
R>Q>P>S
Question 8
Aprotic polar solvents increase the rate of SN2 reactions manifold. Enhancement in the rate of such reactions is due to which one of the following effects?
A
Solvation of the anion by the solvent leaving the cation unaffected
B
Solvation of both of the ionic species
C
Desolvation of the cation and solvation of the anion
D
Solvation of the cation by the solvent leaving the anion unaffected
Question 9
In context of complexometry (complexometric titrations), the two terms labile and inert complexes, are used frequently. Choose the correct statement about them?
A
Labile complexes are formed instantly while inert complexes take hours or days in their formation
B
Labile complexes take much longer tine in formation than inert complexes
C
Labile complexes get hydrolyzed in water immediately while inert complexes are stable in water
D
Labile complexes get decomposed on mild heating in aqueous solutions while inert
complexes do not decompose
Question 10
In colorimetric estimation of a drug, the following sequence of reactions is carried out: treatment of the aqueous solution of the drug with sodium nitrite solution in acidic medium followed by addition of sulphamic acid and then treatment with N-(lnaphthyl) ethylene- diamine in slightly basic medium to obtain a pink colour; which is measured at a fixed wavelength to correlate the quantity of the drug with the optical density. Identify the drug under estimation?
A
Streptomycin sulphate
B
Thiamine hydrochloride
C
Dexamethasone
D
Sulphamethoxazole
Question 11
In the electrochemical series, the standard reduction potentials of copper and zinc are + 0.337 V and - 0.763 V, respectively. If the half cells of both of these metals are connected externally to each other through an external circuit and a salt bridge, which one of the following processes will take place?
A
Zinc metal electrode will start cussohing.in solution while copper ions will start depositing on the copper electrode.
B
Copper metal electrode will start dissolving in solution while zinc ions will start depositing on the zinc electrode
C
Both of the metal electrodes will start dissolving in the solution
D
Both types of ions will start depositing on their respective electrodes
Question 12
Indicators used in complexometric titrations are chelating agents. Choose the correct statement about them?
A
Indicator-metal ion complex should have higher stability than EDTA-Metal ion complex
B
Indicator-metal ion complex should have lower stability than EDTA-Metal ion complex
C
Indicator-metal ion complex should have equal stability as EDTA-Metal ion complex
D
Stability of the indicator-metal ion complex is not an important criterion in
complexometric titrations
Question 13
Name the compound used for standardization of Karl-Fisher reagent in aquametry?
A
Sodium tartrate dihydrate
B
Copper sulphate pentahydrate
C
Sodium iodide
D
Sodium thiosulphate
Question 14

The following statements are given:

[P] Conformational isomers are interconvertible by rotation around a single bond whileconfigurational isomers cannot be interconverted without breaking a bond.

[Q] Configurational isomers could be optically active or optically inactive while conformational isomers are optically inactive

[R] Geometric isomers must have a double bond in their structures

[S] Geometric and optical isomers are the two distinct categories of configurational isomers.Choose the correct combination of statements

A
P, Q & S are true while R is false
B
P, R & S are true while Q is false
C
Q, R & S are true while P is false
D
P, Q & R are true while S is false
Question 15

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r):

Assertion (a): Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde both undergo Cannizaro reaction while

acetaldehyde and phenyacetaldehyde undergo Aldol condensation.

Reason (r) : Aldehydes can undergo both Cannizaro as well as Aldol condensation while ketones undergo only Cannizaro reaction.

A
Both (a) and (r) are false
B
(a) is true but (r) is false
C
(a) is false but (r) is true
D
Both (a) and (r) are true
Question 16
Choose the correct statement for writing the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide?
A
Amino terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the carboxyl terminal is to be written on the right hand side
B
Carboxyl terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the amino terminal is to be written on the right hand side
C
Any of the amino acid terminals can be written on any sides but it is to be mentioned by specifying the amino terminal and the carboxyl terminal in abbreviations
D
It varies from author to author how the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is to be written
Question 17
A carbocation will NOT show one of the following properties. Choose that.
A
Accept an electron to give a carbene
B
Eliminate a proton to afford an alkene
C
Combine with a negative ion
D
Abstract a hydride ion to form an alkane
Question 18
Choose the FALSE statement for E2 mechanism in elimination reactions?
A
These reactions are accompanied by rearrangements
B
These reactions show a large hydrogen isotope effect.
C
These reactions show a large element effect
D
These reactions are not accompanied by hydrogen exchange
Question 19
Polyamine polystyrene resins belong to which category of ion-exchange resins?
A
Strongly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
B
Strongly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
C
Weakly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
D
Weakly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
Question 20
Which amongst the following auxochromes produces a shift towards higher energy wave length?
A
-CH3
B
-NHCH3
C
(O -CI
D
-C=0
Question 21
Chloroform is stored in dark colored bottles because it is oxidized in presence of light and air to a toxic compound. Identify that.
A
CH2Cl2
B
COCl2
C
CO
D
CCl4
Question 22

Given are the four statements about NMB:

[P] 13CMR is a less sensitive technique than PMR [Q] Both 13C and :H have 1=1/2

[R] Precessional frequency of the nucleus is directly proportional to the applied magnetic field

[S] Deuterium exchange studies can be performed to ascertain protons attached to heteroatoms.Choose the correct combination of statements.

A
P, Q & R are true while S is false
B
R, S & Q are true while P is false
C
S, P & Q are true while R is false
D
All are true
Question 23
Discrepancies in potential measurements involving factors like 'alkaline error' and 'asymmetry potential' are associated with which of the following electrodes?
A
Hydrogen electrode
B
Quinhydrone electrode
C
Saturated calomel electrode
D
Glass Electrode
Question 24
What is the wavenumber equivalent of 400 nm wavelength?
A
0.0025 cm-1
B
0.25 cm-1
C
2500 cm-1
D
25000 cm-1
Question 25
All of the given compounds show n —> sigma* transition. Identify which one will have the highest _max?
A
Methanol
B
Methylamine
C
Methyl iodide
D
Methyl bromide
Question 1
If C is the concentration of dissolved drug and Cs is the saturation concentration. In which case the sink conditions are said to be maintained?
A
C < 20% of Cs
B
C > 20% of Cs
C
C < 10% of Cs
D
C >10% of Cs
Question 2
All of the followings are indications for use of ACE inhibitors EXCEPT for one. Identify that.
A
Hypertension
B
Myocardial infarction
C
Left ventricular dysfunction
D
Pheochromocytoma
Question 3
Which water is used for hand washing in a change room of pharmaceutical manufacturing plant?
A
Potable water
B
Purified water
C
Disinfectant water
D
Soap water
Question 4

Which one of the followings does NOT afford a macromolecular inclusion

compound?

A
Zeolites
B
Dextrins
C
Silica gels
D
Cyclodextrins
Question 5
Which condition does not apply as per Indian law while conducting single dose bioavailability study of an immediate release product?
A
Sampling period should be atleast three t1/2 ei
B
Sampling should represent pre-exposure, peak exposure and post-exposure phases
C
There should be atleast four sampling points during elimination phase
D
Sampling should be continued till measured AUC is atleast equal to 80% of AUC
Question 6
Which of the following isothem are produced when the heat of condensation of successive layers is more than the heat of adsorption of first layer?
A
Type III and IV
B
Type II and V
C
Type I and III
D
Type III and V
Question 7
The minimal effective flow rate of air in Luminar Flow hood should be not less than how many cubic feet per minute?
A
10
B
50
C
100
D
1000
Question 8
Which of the following pumps is used in handling of corrosive liquids?
A
Turbine pump
B
Volute Pump
C
Air binding pump
D
Baltic pump
Question 9
Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the correct answer.
A
57.77° under proof
B
57.77° over proof
C
47.41° over proof
D
47.41° under proof
Question 10
What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100:
A
2790 cal/ mole
B
7290 cal / mole
C
7920 cal/mole
D
9720 cal/mole
Question 11
Which of the followings act as a non-ionic emulsifying agent?
A
Triethanolamine oleate
B
Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate
C
N-Cetyl-N-ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate
D
Dioctyl sulphosuccinate
Question 12
Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of drugs?
A
Schedule F
B
Schedule M
C
Schedule G
D
Schedule P
Question 13
By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic?
A
Polyethylene glycol
B
Sorbitol
C
Propylene glycol
D
Dibutyl phthalate
Question 14
Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for which of the followings?
A
Strip packing
B
Aerosols
C
Injection packing
D
Glass containers
Question 15

How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how many mL of 5% (w/v)

dextrose solution are required to prepare 4500 mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?

A
500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5%
B
1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5%
C
4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5%
D
1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%
Question 16
P-Glycoprotein pump is responsible for which one of the followings?
A
Transporting the drugs from the enterocytes into the gut lumen
B
Transporting the drugs from gut lumen into enterocytes
C
Transporting the drugs from oral mucosa into blood capillaries
D
Transporting the drugs from Peyer's patches into the gut lumen.
Question 17
The first stage of wetting on addition of a granulating agent to the powders is characterized by which one of the followings?
A
Capillary state
B
Pendular state
C
Funicular state
D
Droplet state
Question 18
The degree of flocculation of a suspension is 1.5 and the sedimentation volume is 0.75. What will be the ultimate volume of deflocculated suspension?
A
2.0
B
1.5
C
0.75
D
0.5
Question 19
A drug is administered to a 65 Kg patient as 500 mg tablets every 4 hours. Half- life of the drug is 3 h, volume of distribution is 2 liter/Kg and oral bioavailability of the drug is 0.85. Calculate the steady state concentration of the drug?
A
5.05mcg/ml
B
4.50 mcg/ml
C
3.53 mcg/ml
D
3.00 mcg/ml
Question 20
Statement [X] : Hofmeister series grades coagulating power of electrolytes as per their ionic size. Statement [Y] : The relative coagulating power is given by:[P] Al+++ > Ba++ [Q] Li- > F- [R] NH4+ > Na+ Choose the correct statement :
A
Statement X is true but P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
B
Statement X is false and P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
C
Statement X is true and Q and R are false in Statement Y
D
Statement X is false and P is false in Statement Y
Question 21
Larger values of Ky in the Heckel Plot indicate formation of what quality of tablets?
A
Harder tablets
B
Softer tablets
C
Fluffy tablets
D
Brittle tablets
Question 22
Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?
A
Klotz reciprocal plot
B
Sandberg modified equation
C
Blanchard equation
D
Detli plot
Question 23
According to USP, the speed regulating device of the dissolution apparatus should be capable of maintaining the speed within limits of what % of the selected speed?
A
1%
B
2%
C
4%
D
5%
Question 24
Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?
A
It is also called differential distillation
B
It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids -
C
It can be applied for volatile substances
D
It can be used for separation of miscible liquids
Question 25
What is Primogel?
A
Substituted HPMC for direct compression
B
Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression
C
Hydro gelling polymer for gel formation
D
Modified starch for disintegration
Question 1
Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via which one of the following pathways?
A
Shikimic acid - tyrosine
B
Shikimic acid - tryptophan
C
Shikimic acid -
cathinone
D
Shikimic acid - phenylalanine
Question 2
Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the following plants?
A
Prunus serona
B
Tribulus terrestis
C
Ammi visnaga
D
Vanilla planifolia
Question 3

Which one of the following compounds is useful for the stimulation of cell division

and release of lateral bud dormancy?

A
Zeatin
B
2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
C
Indoleacetic acid
D
Picloram
Question 4

A powdered drug has the following microscopic characters:

Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile oil cells and stone cells. The powder is obtained from which of the followings?

A
Clove bud powder
B
Clove bud powder with stalk
C
Mother Clove
D
None of the above
Question 5
Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and shows blue fluorescence?
A
Ergosine
B
Ergotamine
C
) Ergocristine
D
) Ergometrine
Question 6
Goldbeater's skin test is used to detect the presence of which one of the following classes of compounds?
A
Tannins
B
Steroids
C
Glycerides
D
Resins
Question 7
Phenylethylisoquinoline is the precursor of which of the following alkaloids?
A
Colchicine
B
Papaverine
C
Emetine
D
Cephaline
Question 8

Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of their unsaturation (highest to lowest):

[P] Stearic [Q] Oleic acid [R] Linolenic acid [S] Linoleic acid

A
P>Q>R>S
B
S>R>P>Q
C
R>S>Q>P
D
Q>P>R>S
Question 9
Each Of the following options lists a phytoconstituent, its phytochemical grouping, pharmacological activity and corresponding semisynthetic analogue. Find a MISMATCHING option.
A
Podophyllotoxin, lignan, anticancer, etoposide
B
Sennoside, anthraquinone, laxative, sinigrin
C
Atropine, alkaloid, anticholinergic, homatropine
D
THC. terpenophenolic, psychoactive, nabilone
Question 10
Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to platelet aggregation inhibitory action?
A
ADP receptor antagonism
B
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonism
C
Phosphodiesterase inhibition
D
Prostacvclin inhibition
Question 11

Which of the following species is being inactivated by the enzyme Dipeptidyl

peptidase-4?

A
Oxytocin
B
Vasopressin
C
Incretin
D
Glucagon
Question 12

Two genetic types of Cannabis i.e. drug type and Hemp type are cultivated.

[P] Drug type cannabis is rich in (-)A-trans-tetrahydrocannabinol .

[Q] Hemp type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol

[R] Drug type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol -

[S] Hemp type cannabis contains elongated bast fibres

Which one of the given statements is correct?

A
P is true, Q is true, R is true, S is true
B
P is true, Q is false, R is false, S is true
C
P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true
D
P is false, Q is false, R is true, S is false
Question 13
Inhibition/induction of which of the following Cytochrome P450enzyme system is most likely to be involved in important drug-druginteractions?
A
CYP3A4
B
CYP2D6
C
CYP2C9
D
CYP1A2
Question 14

Choose the correct statement about the given four diseases?

[P] Cardiomyopathy ],Q] Rheumatoid arthritis
[R] Myasthenia gravis [S] Ulcerative colitis

A
Q & S are autoimmune disorders
B
P & Q are autoimmune disorders
C
P & R are not autoimmune disorders
D
R & S are not autoimmune disorders
Question 15
Most of the emergency contraceptives have one of the following active ingredients?
A
Estradiol
B
Norethindron
C
Misoprostol
D
Levonorgesterel
Question 16
Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of which of its following actions?
A
Integrase inhibition
B
CCR5 Co-receptor antagonism
C
Fusion inhibition
D
Reverse transcriptase inhibition
Question 17
Which one of the followings is NOT an example of G-protein coupled receptor?
A
Muscarinic cholinergic receptor
B
Alpha adrenoceptor
C
Nicotinic cholinergic
receptor
D
Beta adrenoceptor
Question 18
Which of the following statements is FALSE for artemisinin?
A
It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide
B
It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria
C
It does not cure relapsing malaria
D
It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria
Question 19
Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration dependent bactericidal action and also possesses post-antibiotic effect?
A
Ceftazidime
B
Azithromycin
C
Amikacin
D
Piperacillin
Question 20
What is chemotaxis?
A
Toxicity of chemicals
B
Taxonomy of chemicals
C
Inhibition of Inflammation
D
Movement of leucocytes in inflammation
Question 21
Which of the followings used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a biologic response modifier?
A
Anakinra
B
Leflunomide
C
Etanercept
D
Infliximab
Question 22

Which of the followings is a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme reverse

transcriptase in HIV?

A
Lamivudine
B
Nevirapine
C
Abacavir
D
Tenofovir
Question 23
Which one of the followings is a beta lactamase inhibitor?
A
Penicillanic acid
B
Embonic acid
C
Cephalosporanic acid
D
Clavulanic acid
Question 24
Neural tube defects may occur by which one of the following anti-seizure drugs?
A
Ethosuximide
B
Vigabatrin
C
Valproic acid
D
Primidone
Question 25
Which one of the following drying methods is commonly used in pharma industry for drjing of soft shell capsules?
A
Truck drying
B
Fluid bed drying
C
Vacuum drying
D
Microwave drying
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